Generic meds vs. label meds? ( serious inquiry )

[Japan]

Originally Posted by GirardTheGlorious [You must be logged in to view images. Log in or Register.]

Keep in mind these drugs are basically anti-depressants in the way they work -- skipping a dose can have a very noticable effect on mood.

oh my fucking god.

[katrik]

Originally Posted by Hasbinbad [You must be logged in to view images. Log in or Register.]

People keep saying different things, and it's dumb. This is how it is:

Active ingredients are the same in any generic version as the brand name, unless otherwise specifically indicated (extended release pills are a DIFFERENT medication, with a different absorption rate, and should NOT BE USED INTERCHANGEABLY or AT ALL without consulting your doctor first). Chemistry isn't a malleable science. Chemical formulas are chemical formulas, and that is that. You can't have water molecules and different water molecules. H2O is H2O.

The things that may be different between generics and name brands are the process they used to arrive at a given formula (which can leave behind undesirable byproducts), and the filler and/or coating material(s) used, if any. These are the inactive ingredients. Inactive ingredients can in fact have adverse side effects, and are subject to the individual. Before committing to the use of a generic product, especially a psychoactive medication, you should employ due diligence as far as researching what others have said, and then have a trial period to observe the effects.

This. All drugs, synthetically, are manufactured the same.

[Dagner]

I'm a student pharmacist on rotations at the moment, and I will try and clear some of this information up for you.

In most cases, switching from brand to the (sometimes many) available generics of a certain drug is chemically and therapeutically equivalent. An example would be buying different types of ibuprofen as listed above (motrin vs a store brand). The only differences would be fillers, preservatives, etc, but it would be expected that the action of the drug would be equivalent. This is similar to when switching between the same class of drug to get to an equipotent dose. An example would be when you go to the hospital on a home med of atorvastatin (lipitor) and the hospital switches you to simvastatin (zocor) at a higher dose. Both of these drugs are in the same class, and when each is used at a certain individual dose (atorvastatin is more potent) will have the same efficacy on the lipid profile (% wise).

There are some drugs though, in both of the cases where there is some gray area. Neuro-related drugs is one case in point. AED's (anti-epileptic drugs, anti-seizure, etc) are not always "therapeutic equivalents" between brand and generic of the same drug. This is because they have such a strict window of a therapeutic index, which means that the +/- % that a generic drug of a brand must fall within to meet the requirements of being a generic does not always mean it will have the same therapeutic effect. For a completely hypothetical example, if a patient is on the brand drug for phenytoin as an anti seizure med, and is genericly substituted for a generic phenytoin, there is research out there that shows that it might not control seizures as well for that same person, even though it is the same drug.

As for your question, if your son is on methylphenidate (basically a stimulant) which is aka (concerta, ritalin, metadate, etc) as long as you arent getting an extended release/controlled release, methylphenidate is methylphenidate. Focalin is different because its only one part of the racemic mixture of methylphenidate and this can have a drastic effect on activity/SE's/etc. The difference between, for example, concerta or concerta XR is that the XR is typically formulated to be released over a long period of time, changing the pharmacokinetics of the drug through absorption and other factors, giving it different concentration levels in your blood at different (longer) times compared to if you just took regular concerta. If you feel that your child isn't reacting in the same way that he has to previous medication that is the exact same drug, then you need to consult your doctor and get him changed back to the original drug he was on, or at least ask some questions. As for switching between adderroll (amphetamine) and methylphenidate for ADHD, it is completely possible that changing between these two drugs could have, and probably would be predicted, to have different effects until the right dose is found.

Maybe it is the pharmacist in me talking, but in the vast majority of cases, if the active ingredient is the same, the drug, regardless of brand or generic, is going to have the same effect on your by using the same mechanism of action. In all cases, while on a drug, if you notice that something isn't working like it should, or if you are experiencing more adverse effects than you are use to, you should always consult your physician or your pharmacist first instead of asking a bunch of random people on a p1999 forum on their take of a situation.

I hope I could help, and have a good day.


Dagner Fizzleton
50 Enchanter
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[Fourthmeal]

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