Quote:
Originally Posted by Humerox
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From: Home Office Statistical Bulletin
Homicides are relatively rare events, and year-on-year variations need to be interpreted with some caution. A statistical analysis of trends (discussed in Section 1.6) indicates a significant reduction in homicides since 2007/08.
Next:
- Number of Murders, United States, 2010: 12,996
- Number of Murders by Firearms, US, 2010: 8,775
- Number of Murders, Britain, 2011*: 638
(Since Britain’s population is 1/5 that of US, this is equivalent to 3,095 US murders)
- Number of Murders by firearms, Britain, 2011*: 58
(equivalent to 290 US murders)
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Nobody is arguing if there is not more violent crime in the US vs. Britain, that proves nothing. They are different cultures and America is more of a violent culture by nature. None of this has anything to do with the impact on implemented gun regulations as was the previous question.
As per the actual conversation, isolated to Britain what was the impact on violent crime and murder as a result of a gun ban and increased gun regulation? The result, as shown in the data, is that violent crime increased as the population became unarmed. Hence, gun regulation does not solve a violent crime problem as I originally stated.
Learn to apply data to a conversation and not try to create a false argument with convenient facts.
01-12-2013, 02:12 AM
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