So how about that Zimmerman trial?

[Splorf22]

Originally Posted by stonez138 [You must be logged in to view images. Log in or Register.]

Would it be unreasonable to believe that white home buyers have better education and "a more robust family history of home owners" because people of color have been discriminated against in this country for hundreds of years? To the point to where they were forbiden to but homes in certain areas if permited to at all?

I think its an extremely reasonable explanation. That is what Daldoma said earlier: suppose you run a regression and it turns out the "race" variable has a certain predictive power. What does that mean? Well there are three possibilities:

a) certain races are inferior
b) systemic racism
c) your study sucks

In other words you are not measuring something that is correlated with race for whatever reason that is affecting your results. Really it is impossible to prove from the data alone which is the case. You are suggesting 'C', which I think is by far the most likely explanation.