Quote:
Originally Posted by Kagatob
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If someone is a 'victim' of incest and it results into a pregnancy is it a stretch to call that a subcategory of rape? If the incest was consensual then the female involved isn't a 'victim' so why is there the special categorization?
Prease exprain.
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No daughter has 'consensual' sex with her father (which I presume is the kind of incest lawmakers had in mind) unless something is seriously fucked up with her childhood/home environment. Therefore victim would be more accurate description than "consensual."
I've only heard this kind of language in a political context. Not a philosophical or legal one, where people define their terminology with much greater precision.