Quote:
Originally Posted by Diggles
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So, following Pickled's logic, if I start a sentence with the word holocaust it's automatically about the jewish Holocaust because it's capitalized?
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Of course not, but any rational English-speaking human going to assume you're referring to the Judeocide unless you specify or at least provide sufficient context in the rest of your sentence.
"Holocaust," by itself, in the overwhelming majority of situations, failing sufficient context or clarification, refers to the Judeocide. Can we move on or is this still in dispute?