I see the OP's point, it is a valid one.
I guess my question is, why was a dual standard applied in terms of enforcing the rules? I never heard the answer to that, and it sets a slippery precedent for future issues.
I've tried to pick up the nuances of it from RnF but the signal/noise ratio isn't so good over there. If you could point me to a thread that answers that, please do. If you consider this post 'questioning your authority' then my bad, please delete or move it, just let me know. Thanks.
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