Quote:
Originally Posted by aussenseiter
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It says private property is inherently theft but doesn't explain why.
Is it because the means of production are private property?
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That's because this is 19th century ideology, born from speculative philosophy. The alleged method is that the hypothesis
will prove out.
That is how speculation works. You make a claim, and hope no one notices it is a contestable premise. Ideological movements suck like that.
Can it be explained? Yes, but it's keeps begging the question. For example, if we limit our definition of private property to "private ownership of means of production" (which includes capital itself, of course) the reason why private property is "theft" or in gneral "not right!" is because it is not fair, nor can it be fair, that the tools to earn a living are not controlled at all by the person who needs to make that living. It is ripe for exploitation, as history proves again and again.
But we've just introduced a whole raft of new premises. We have not clarified anything. What is "fair" for example?
Again, this is why ideology is bad. It is not designed to handle exploration or questions. It's secular dogmatics.