Quote:
Originally Posted by loramin
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You have a very romanticized (read: not accurate) view of the past:
Women in medieval times were also disadvantaged economically, so "both work bottom tier jobs at the same wage" was not in fact true:
On top of all that they were also disadvantaged in many other ways:
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In economic times where agriculture formed the basis of all production and surplus, where labor was an asset, perhaps having societies that forced women into reproductive relationships was advantageous to human survival and societal order? In other words, could the motivation behind inequality, PERHAPS, have been pragmatism as opposed to men imposing dominion? I'm asking rhetorically. I know the right answer but I suspect you don't