basically the issue is that you're seeing systemic inequality and calling it systemic racism without proving the latter. inequality isn't inherently racist. when the study in question is showing black sellers in black neighborhoods charging black buyers the same premium as white sellers in white neighborhoods, it should be clear that the seller's prejudices aren't a major factor. that leaves the buyer or some overarching controlling entity as the responsible party. you're claiming overarching control, but from whom? the study controls for access to loans, so it's not the banks. you're laughing at splorf's "invisible hand" of the free market while positing an "invisible hand" of racism.
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